| Topic: | Re:Re:Re:Re:Re:Descartes' original sin |
| Posted by: | John Grinder |
| Date/Time: | 24/03/2005 04:07:04 |
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JS I accept your historical point - the earliest reference I am aware of in the "Christian" tradition is the Manicheans, and I suspect that this splitting goes much further back. Our use of Descartes is an arbitrary historical reference - we are simply picking on him as he is likely the best known example available to the readership. There are, from my point of view, severe difficulties with some of your other points - I offer several comments: 1. you are conflating the Map - Territory distinction with the "mind-body" split. These are two quite distinct logical types of epistemological error - with quite distinct consequences. Please re-think this. I question the relevance of your remarks about f2 and the "apple" example 2. How is de Vinci's radcal actions - the dissection of corpses relevant to the mind/body split - please make this connection explicit 3. Again, you conflate 1st and 3rd position with mind/body splits - the perceptual positions are simply that - shifting perceptual positions without an obvious (to me) relevance to the issue (mind.body). 4. In what sense is the f1/f2 distinction ne-cartesian? I look forward to your making explicit your thinking behind some of the statements that you made and for which I am requesting a more explicit representation. All the best, John |