| Topic: | help on the difference between FA, f1 and f2 |
| Posted by: | scott |
| Date/Time: | 14/04/2005 01:52:37 |
|
hello. i was listening to binaural sound on stero earphones (on the left earphone, a frequency of 111 Hz is outputted, while on the left earphone, another frequency of 101 Hz is outputted) last night and it got me to wondering, since i still haven't understood quite well FA and f1 (yeah put f2 in there as well)... as many of you can guess, an apparent frequency difference (called binaural beat) will be observed or noticed by a listener using the same setup. questions: 1. can you say that the actual perception of the individual frequency (as when listening to only one earphone at a time) on one ear is CLOSE to the formal defiinition of FA? 2. and that the apparent anomalous frequency difference felt listening to stereo speakers is CLOSE to what you call f1 3. and that the explanation or descriptions (binaural beats) of it are part of f2? thanks, scott |