Topic: | ReRe:Re:Re:Re:What is the definition of variables? |
Posted by: | kc |
Date/Time: | 30/08/2002 23:04:05 |
Hello John Grinder and Carmen Bostic I am back from vacationing in Aruba and feeling strong. Your Web site looks like it is moving right along! Hey on my vacation John and Carmen I had some time to look at WITW and do have a quick question for you. On page 276 you mention the following: NLP is characteristically defined in popular writing books as the study of subjective experience - indeed, there are a number of books on NLP.....where this description occurs. But consider the phrase subjective experience--- What could this possibly mean? Is it INTENDED TO CONTRAST WITH OBJECTIVE EXPERIENCE(surely an oxymoron) or what? JG and CB you go on to write: We have argued in the epistemology presented in Chapter 1, Part 1, that first access (FA) IS A PONT AT WHICH WE EXPERIENCE THE WORLD AROUND US. But FA is a point in the human neurology by definition at which the incoming data stream from the world has already passed through the initial series of the neurological transforms (f1). Since these neurological transforms are known to change the data that streams through in their movement to FA,the representations at FA are, BY DEFINITION, SUBJECTIVE-HAVING BEEN OPERATED ON BY THE STRUCTURE (the neurological transforms) of the human nervous system yet defined. Thus again, either the expression (subjective experience) is absurd- in this case, confusingly redundent or is being used pedagogically as a code to provoke certain understanding in the participant. So my quick question is where do you guys see subjective experience beginning? How can one change their variables to subjective see, hear and sense something other than they what they have previously if such redundancy does exists subjectively in each and every one of us especially if one has not defined such variables personally? regards and happy week end folks, kc |